Any ideal current source has an infinite internal impedance and a infinite amount of voltage available to enforce its designated current value. Whether the ideal dependent source is commanded to supply a particular amount of current or no current at all does not change its internal impedance. So, if no current is coming from a dependent source, does the circuit "see" any difference of impedance than if a independent current source is outputting no current?Hi guys,
I'm in an introductory EE class and I was wondering, if the dependent variable of a dependent current source is zero, does the dependent current source become a short circuit or open circuit?
Thanks for the help.