Your function is:
and it looks like you need to find f^-1(1) which would mean if we
had the inverse function x=f^-1(y) we would calculate x knowing y.
The function can be written:
and since we know what y is we plug that in:
Now we dont know what the inverse function is and it doesnt look
easy to calculate or it doesnt even exist, so we look at the equation
above and try to solve it. We need to find an x that when used in
"x+cos(x)" it comes out to an answer of 1.
The only solution i can see is x=0, because this is true:
so that means that f^-1(1)=0 because when y equals one x equals zero.
Yes a plot helps, but in this case you did not say how it helps. For example, are you saying that there are an infinite number fo solutions or just one? In other words, you need to state what your final solution to this problem would be.
We both know what it is, but someone else might not know what you are implying with the graph.
BTW it's a little clearer to graph y=f(x)-y1 rather than y=f(x).
Back to main ideas...
The derivative of the inverse function can be found using the property that the inverse function slope is 1/m where m is the slope of the original function. Watch the sign, and probably you want the derivative at the solution point.
In post #6 it was asked how to find the "deriv" of g.
What you say now is true, but before that you did not explain what the graph was doing for us. People who dont do this that much dont know what they are looking at. For example, in your graph do we look for the y axis crossing or the x axis crossing or consider all the points on that graph to mean something. Until you explain it someone might not know. Now that you've explained it it will be clear to almost anyone. You have to keep in mind you might be dealing with students who are new to this. I think it is very good to show the graph though, with a short added explanation.
There are some other interesting ways to solve this too, but not sure if i want to get into that right now.