tech_vaibhav_eee
New Member
OFDM(orthogonal frequency division technique) is used to provide different channels to different users.I have some doubt regarding ho these channels are allocated.I would try to ask my my question with the help of an example:
Suppose, there are 3 users and total bandwidth is 9 mhz.\
In traditional FDM technique , each user is given equal bandwith of 3mhz each and each band having a carrier frequency (neglecting guard band and considering requirements of each user as equal).
I am not sure what happens in OFDM.This is what i think happens but correct me if i am wrong:
Instead of using three carrier frequencies as in FDM, Subcarrier frequencies are calculated in each band (orthogonal to each other) and data is sent at these subcarrier frequencies.
Now , the part where i am confused is that:
suppose , the total freq. spectrum is :F1 to F2 --> bandwidth = F2-F1
Bandwidth of first user: F1 to F1+(F2-F1)/3...is this true?? what i want to know is :are the subcarrier frequencies given to user 1 lies between this frequency range or is it distributed all over the spectrum, i.e F1 to F2.
Suppose, there are 3 users and total bandwidth is 9 mhz.\
In traditional FDM technique , each user is given equal bandwith of 3mhz each and each band having a carrier frequency (neglecting guard band and considering requirements of each user as equal).
I am not sure what happens in OFDM.This is what i think happens but correct me if i am wrong:
Instead of using three carrier frequencies as in FDM, Subcarrier frequencies are calculated in each band (orthogonal to each other) and data is sent at these subcarrier frequencies.
Now , the part where i am confused is that:
suppose , the total freq. spectrum is :F1 to F2 --> bandwidth = F2-F1
Bandwidth of first user: F1 to F1+(F2-F1)/3...is this true?? what i want to know is :are the subcarrier frequencies given to user 1 lies between this frequency range or is it distributed all over the spectrum, i.e F1 to F2.
