Common mode voltage question

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throbscottle

Well-Known Member
A year and a half passed, and I can't believe I'm still developing my bench dmm. It's proving very educational, every time I think I've solved one thing, another comes up!

So, as far as I can make out, in a non-inverting op-amp, 100% of the input voltage is common mode. This results in an error given by Vin/(10^(cmrr/20)). Now, if I've got that bit right, then this is indistinguinshible from a gain error, and I can compensate it by adjusting the gain of the amp. Am I correct?

Thanks in advance folks
 
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