Hello,
the problem is associated to the fact that when resistance in RLC is not zero, then capacitor's voltage and inductor's voltage reach resonance at different frequency(right around the area of current's resonance frequency).
I know the equations for calculating them:
Volatage resonance for inductor at:
ω=1/(LC-(R^2*C^2)/2)
Voltage resonance for capacitor at:
ω=sqrt( 1/(LC) - R^2/(2*L^2) )
It is easy to see that if R>0, then voltage resonance for inductor comes into being at higher resonance, for capacitor at lower.
What I need is an explanation, not a mathematical proof, but a physical explanation of it. WHY?
Thanks!
the problem is associated to the fact that when resistance in RLC is not zero, then capacitor's voltage and inductor's voltage reach resonance at different frequency(right around the area of current's resonance frequency).
I know the equations for calculating them:
Volatage resonance for inductor at:
ω=1/(LC-(R^2*C^2)/2)
Voltage resonance for capacitor at:
ω=sqrt( 1/(LC) - R^2/(2*L^2) )
It is easy to see that if R>0, then voltage resonance for inductor comes into being at higher resonance, for capacitor at lower.
What I need is an explanation, not a mathematical proof, but a physical explanation of it. WHY?
Thanks!