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Hello, Today I read something about loudspeakers; there was something about relationship between beam width and the angular size of a sound beam generated by different speakers in size. I read there, which there is a proportion between the size of the opening source of the speaker and the wavelength of the sound for beam width, which means; the larger the speaker opening the narrower the beam width we have. I can not understand why? Does anyone know why that ratio exists? What the opening source of the speaker does here? Thanks. | |
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When the width of a speaker is half a sound wavelength, if you are not on axis then the sound from the near edge of the cone is cancelling the sound from the distant edge of the cone. 1" tweeters have beaming at about 15kHz but it is reduced when the cone is a dome.
__________________ Uncle $crooge | |
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your explanation does not make any sense to me. I have read that at a certain freq we can get a very tight beam if we have a speaker with a width of a small building. In that paper I read that the reason is the relationship between the width of the speaker and the wavelength of the sound but I am not able to understand why if we hvae a larger speaker or a shorter wavelength we will get a tighter sound beam? | ||
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__________________ Uncle $crooge | ||||
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Here's an intresting site. I know it's probably not exactly what you're looking for thought it's interesting none the less. http://www.du.edu/~jcalvert/tech/speak.htm
__________________ I do not answer private messages asking for help because no one else can: benefit from advice I may give or correct me if I'm wrong. Please ask on the open forum if you have a question and I'll be happy to help, if I know the answer. | |
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| speaker, wavelength |
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